Why is Jesus without sin according to the text?

Why is Jesus without sin according to the text?

• A. sin / sin is a privation of divine nature
• B. death / death is the consequence of sin
• C. sin / sin is a privation of human nature
• D. guilt / guilt is a consequence of original sin

Answer: (C)

Sin is understood as a privation—the absence of the good that should be present in human nature in relationship to God. Because Jesus’ humanity remains ordered to God and united to the divine life, his human nature does not lack that good, so he is without sin. This view treats sin as a missing good in the moral order of a person, not as a positive defect in God or as simply a consequence like death or guilt. If sin were described as a privation of divine nature, it would wrongly imply a defect in God’s own nature, which doesn’t fit orthodox teaching. And calling death or guilt the reason for Jesus’ sinlessness misses the point about what sin is—the absence of the good proper to human nature in its relationship with God.

Sin is understood as a privation—the absence of the good that should be present in human nature in relationship to God. Because Jesus’ humanity remains ordered to God and united to the divine life, his human nature does not lack that good, so he is without sin. This view treats sin as a missing good in the moral order of a person, not as a positive defect in God or as simply a consequence like death or guilt.

If sin were described as a privation of divine nature, it would wrongly imply a defect in God’s own nature, which doesn’t fit orthodox teaching. And calling death or guilt the reason for Jesus’ sinlessness misses the point about what sin is—the absence of the good proper to human nature in its relationship with God.